Dear Sir,

I read some of your past commentaries where you mention
a Breakeven stoploss.
A breakeven stoploss, like any other stoploss, when triggered becomes a market order which is subject to
subjective price action. When a Breakeven stoploss is
hit, the Breakeven properties are subject to Market values.
Therefore a Breakeven stop price "cannot be locked into a
specific price" because it is subject to Market values at the momment or perhaps many momments away.
Therefore, is a breakeven stoploss merely an approximate price value?
How can it truly be a Breakeven Stop price if the price cannot
be actually locked in? How does it become "a free trade"
if the price cannot be actually be locked in?

Thank you for your anticipated response and kindness.